Don Barone Wrote:
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>
> But I repeat it does not have to equal 20.61 or
> 20.62 or 20.63 or even 20.615 or 20.625 or 20.635
> It can very easily equal a number of inches which
> does not divide evenly.


No, it really can't.

Unless you can show me where the number we know as Phi was known to the ancient Egyptians... and then explain why they would have used a decimal system entirely foreign to them, combined with a measurement unit (inches) that was still thousands of years from being create, so that they could have a unit that was equal to Phi/One. (this is the fraction that is expressed after the number 20 in your above calculation. "Point Phi" is Phi/One).

But you can't demonstrate any of that. You are running on the flawed logic of "There's no proof it wasn't, so it could have been, so it was".

No. It really wasn't.

Anthony

You can lead a horse to water but you can't make him think.