Hi Roxana I tend to agree with you but isn't it odd that you would describe just one single person in all of Egyptian history as being "at peace" or "is satisfied". I realize our start of understanding hieroglyphs came from The Rosetta Stone discovered in 1799 and this apparently was a decree issued in 196 BC with
"three versions of a decree issued at Memphis, Egypt in 196 BC during the Ptolemaic dynasty on behalf of King Ptolemy V. The top and middle texts are in Ancient Egyptian using hieroglyphic script and Demotic script, respectively, while the bottom is in Ancient Greek. As the decree has only minor differences between the three versions, the Rosetta Stone proved to be the key to deciphering Egyptian hieroglyphs." Now this is over 2400 years after the inscription on Djoser's statue of "mnhtp" and his various titles. Just curious if there is a contemporary source explaining the hieroglyphs a little closer to 2600 B.C.E. For surely meanings would have changed over the course of the ages especially after 2400 years. Do you know when the earliest attestation of "mnhtp" meaning "He is at peace" might have come from. Or failing that since you feel I don't read enough suggesting a book that would give me the answer. I am curious what source could have been used as a dictionary 2600 B.C.E. I find it hard to believe that what the word meant in 196 BC was the same as what the word meant in 2600 B.C.E. I mean just look at
"English" since the 5th century. [
en.wikipedia.org] and just curious if Ancient Egyptian was like some languages where the verbs were conjugated such as I come, you come, he comes , we come, you come (plural), they come. Would there have been a different hieroglyph for each of these. If peace is the adverb would the verb be "come" or "come in" or would the adverb be "in peace" Does anyone know ? Does anyone care ?
regards
Don Barone
"There is nothing as impenetrable as a closed mind"
and ..." if everything is a coincidence what is the point of studying or measuring or analyzing anything ?" db